Saturday, September 10, 2011

Just wondering

How often, and where, has the Muslim population of a Muslim country been the origin of, or the popular or governmental engine behind, a movement to grant actual and enforced –as opposed to merely paper--equal status to non-Muslims and non-Muslim religions?

Excluded are countries where a Western colonial regime enforced a secular legal code still largely in effect.

1 comment:

Anonymous said...

Equality before the law is absolutely forbidden in Islam.

Sura 9:29 - "Fight against such of those who have been given the Scripture as believe not in Allah until they pay the tribute (the Jizya) readily, being brought low."

Sura 4:11 - "Allah chargeth you concerning (the provision for) your children: to the male the equivalent of the portion of two females."

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